IP Routing Question

[Monty J. Harder]

On Wed, 3 Jan 2001 08:37:32 -0600 mike neuliep <mike at illiana.net> writes:

> If you wanted to use private IPs in the public internet, you can't 
> guarantee

  But I'm not using those private IPs "in the public internet".  For this
implementation to work, the private hops between the routers would have
to be concealed from "the public internet".  Those routes would never be
advertised to "the public internet", only the one to the gateway (that
knows about the hidden routes).

> uniqueness.  In IP this create....well a problem.  So if you nail it 

  Each of the routers that uses 3 private IPs in my example also has one
or two =unique= public IP addresses.  Can those routers report a public
IP when responding to a traceroute? This is the one thing I can imagine
causing problems, and I just don't know how this works.

> down to
> one reason why you should not do this, it would be duplicate IP 
> networks and
> addressing.  I hope this helps.

  But if nobody outside the 6 router-router nominal subnets even knows
what that IP is, how could it ever be relevant?  Once again, what
=exactly= breaks?
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